My ITIL 2011 Foundation Flashcards

Published by Keyboard Banger on

I will be publishing flashcards about ITIL 2011 Foundation, across several posts. I created these sets by myself. They helped me to remember the most important topics and to pass the exam.
To hide the answers (and encourage you to make an effort), I got inspired from a technique that I discovered on Cisco Dreamer’s blog. To see the answer, highlight the text after the “A:” letter.
Enjoy!

Q: Define a Service.
A:A means to create value to customers

Q: What does a service do?
A: A service allows the customer to get an output, without forcing him to own the costs and risks,

Q: true/false: a service is durable
A: False; a service is highly perishable, if not consumed when needed

Q: What’s the impact of the ITSM on an company that uses IT?
A: With ITSM, a company becomes an IT Service Provider, instead of a technology provider

Q: To which type of customers does a service provider provide services to?
A: both internal and external customers

Q: Define ITSM.
A: ITSM: a standardized set of methodological capabilities that allow an organization to provide the highest quality services that create value for customers

Q: What are the processes that make the Service Strategy volume?
A: Service Portfolio Mgmt, Business Relationship Mgmt, Demand Mgmt, Financial Mgmt

Q: What are the processes that make the Service Design volume?
A: Supplier Mgmt, Capacity Mgmt, Availability Mgmt, IT Service Continuity Mgmt, Information Security Mgmt, Design Coordination

Q: What are the processes that make the Service Transition volume?
A: Release & Deployment Mgmt, Service Asset & Configuration Mgmt (SACM), Transition Planning & Support, Knowledge Mgmt, Change Mgmt

Q: What are the processes that make the Service Operation volume?
A: Problem Mgmt, Incident Mgmt, Request Fulfillment, Event Mgmt, Access Mgmt

Q: What are the functions of Service Operation?
A: Technical Mgmt, Application Mgmt, IT Operations Mgmt, Service Desk
Q: acronym of ELS?
A: EarlyLife Support: it’s the overlap between Service Transition and Service Operation. It assists a new or changed service to be integrated into the live environment until the service can be supported totally by the Service Operation processes
Q: Acronym of SIP?
A: Service Improvement Plan
Q: Acronym of SLP?
A: Service Level Package
Q: Acronym of SDP?
A: Service Design Package
Q: Acronym of SPR?
A: Service Performance Reports
Q: acronym of MassaCRe?
A: a process is Measurable, Creates an outcome for a customer, is triggeRed by an event
Q: What’s the definition of a “function”?
A: Organizational unit composed of people, tools and other resources, that carries one or more processes or activities
Q: RACI model?
A: Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
Q: true/false:Each process has an input and an output
A: true
Q: Roles identified for a Process
A: Process Owner, Process Manager, Process Practitioner
Q: true/false: Process Manager and Process Practitioner roles can be assigned to the same person
A: true
Q: true/false: there can be many Process Managers for the same process
A: true
Q: true/false: There are one or more Process owners
A: false. Only one
Q: Roles that can be assigned to a Service?
A: Service Owner, Service Manager
Q: Process vs Activities?
A: a process is a collection of activities
Q: How is the RACI model used?
A: put the activities on the left and the roles in colums. For each combination of “activity-role”, assign the RACI role
Q: Process Owner vs Process Manager vs Process Practitioner
A: P. Owner: ensures that the process is fit for the purpose, P.Manager: is hold accountable for the operational management of the process (including monitoring reports), P.Practitioner: is accountable for the execution of one or more activities of the process
Q: Service Owner?
A: – is responsible -in the eyes of the customer – of the initiation, transition, operations, management, maintenance and support of the service.
– manages the relationship between Service Manager and Process Owners to ensures the service meets business outcomes and is aligned with the Service Strategy
Q: true/false: “Consulted” role involves a one-way communication
A: false. It’s a two-way communication, as opposed to the “Informed” role

Q: Supporting service vs Enabling service vs Enhancing service?
A: both Enabling and Enhancing Services are Supporting Services, ie they allow tbe Core Service to be provided to customer

Q: true/false:Enabling services are perceived by end customers.
A: false

Q: Service Assets are composed of which components?
A: – capabilities (intangible): , people, management, knowledge, processes, skills,
– resources (tangible):infrastructure, applications, people, finances 

Q: What do Service Assets help produce?
A: services

Q: What’s the relation between Services and Customer Assets?
A: Services are the Assets the Customer uses to achieve his business needs

Q: What are the characteristics of the value of Services?
A: variable over time, depends on the customer (risk taker, risk avoider, his self image, his preferences, his past experiences, his feedback)

Q: Which duality characterizes an IT Service ?
A: Utility vs Warranty. This duality determines the business value of an IT service

Q: Acronym for SWOT analysis and at which stage is it used?
A: Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats… SWOT is used by Service Strategy when studying the market

Q: What’s the output of the Service Strategy volume?
A: Service Level Package SLP

Q: What are the Service Portfolio process activities?
A: Define, Analyze, Approve, Charter
Q: What does the Service Portfolio Mgmt SPM do?
A: – maximizes the ROI of services while managing risks,
– develops business cases of new services
– helps set priorities on services,
– documents all active, retired or in-development processes
– ensures the proper service assets are allocated to meet customer business needs
– matches the business requirements to the services that exist in the Service Portoflio
Q: Define Service Portfolio?
A: the complete set of IT services that the provider has. It contains three parts: Service Pipeline (services in development stage) Service Catalog (live or ready-for-deployment services), Retired Services
Q: Cost classification?
A: Direct vs Indirect costs, Fixed vs Variable costs, Capital vs Operational costs
Q: true/false: in Service Portfolio Mgmt process, if a service is not explicitly approved then it’s disapproved
A: false. Disapproval must be explicit to avoid misconception
Q: What is a known risk management framework in SPM process?
A: Management of Risk MoR
Q: Activities of Demand Mgmt
A: – determine the Patterns of Business Activity PBA throughout the year and establish User Profiles UP,
– work closely with Capacity Mgmt to determine the right service capacity needed for different periods of business,
– influences other Service Strategy processes and the Service Design volume,
– influence the customer demand
Q: Types of Demand Mgmt?
A: Tactical Mgmt and Strategic Mgmt
Q: purpose of Tactical Demand Mgmt?
A: influence the demande to lessen it during peak periods
Q: purpose of Strategic Mgmt?
A: – determine the Patterns of Business Activity PBA throughout the year, taking into account peak and seasonal periods,
– establish User Profiles UP
Q: In Demand Mgmt, how is an overvall pattern defined?
A: by combining PBA and UP
Q: purpose of Financial Mgmt?
A: – to make sure the right cost is mapped to a service
– to obtain the adequate funding for IT services
Q: Activities of Financial Mgmt?
A: Service Provisioning Optimization SPO
Compliance,
Service Investment Analysis SIA,
Demand Modeling,
Service Valuation,
Variable Cost Dynamics VCD
Q: purpose of Business Relationship Mgmt?
A: – to manage the relationship between the customer and the service provider at tactical and strategic levels
– to ensure that service provider understands the customer business needs,
– to reach and increase customer satisfaction, by leading him to pay for the services
– to provide formal processes for complaints and escalation
Q: true/false: Service Transition is not interested in the business side of things; it’s interested in the project level
A: true
Q: How can you summarize the activities of Service Transition?
A: Can be summed up as building, testing and deploying new services:
– ensure the insertion of new or changed services in live environments
– to plan the necessary resources, to build and to test new or changed services, ensuring that they can be managed and operated later
– to provide the necessary training, knowledge and information to put the new or changed services into operation
– to ensure the new or changed service build is repeatable
– to reduce the risk of service disruption by putting a clear framework and a testing&evaluation plan
– to provide metrics and measurements of services that will be measured by Service Operation stage

Q: Where is the value of services perceived, from both the customers and the end users?
A: at the Service Operation volume

Q: true/false: Continual Service Improvement intervenes after the Service Operation volume
A: false. CSI intervenes across all service lifecycle.

Q: What is the purpose of Service Strategy?
A: – to provide overall guidance for the whole IT service mgmt
– to understand and define the market space (customers),
– Develop the Offering: to define competitive services that respond to the market and to understand the resources, the capabilities and the financial elements that support them
– to develop strategic assets
– to prepare for execution
– to understand how tools and technology can compensate service flaws
– to evaluation situations before making decisions
– to set plans and perspectives for the organization in order to meet business objectives
– allows to prioritize services in alignment with business needs, contains the Service Value Definition process

Q: the output of the Information Security Mgmt process
A: Information Security Policies

Q: purpose of Design Coordination process?
A: – plan the necessary resources and capabilities for new or changing IT services
– be the single point of contact that coordinates between all other Service Design processes
– produce SDPs based on service charters and RFCs
– maintain policies and documents for all design processes

Q: purpose of IT Service Continuity Mgmt?
A: to provide minimum agreed service levels in a timely manner, provide continuity to IT services

Q: Purpose of Change Mgmt
A: – to ensure minimum disruption of services during change, thus minimize business risk, thus better risk management
– to lower the number of unplanned changes
– to plan, control, authorize, assess, test, approve, implement, close and document changes
– to record changes made to Configuration Items in the Configuration Mgmt System 

Q: What does Service Assets and Conf Management (SACM) do?

A: SACM allows the following:

– to ensure that Assets are controlled and properly represented
– to manage the relationship between service Assets,
– to ensure that service assets are available when and where needed, to authorized components and entities only
– relies on the CMS
– to ensure CI consistency for all processes
– to provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure through Configuration Models

Q: true/false: SACM process goes across the whole lifecycle.

A: true

Q: What is the purpose of Release&Deployment Management?

A: planning, scheduling and deploying the development and testing new releases.

Q: What is the purpose of Knowledge Management?

A: Knowledge Management shares perspectives, ideas, experiences and information, improves efficiency by reducing the need to rediscover the knowledge. DIKW is part of Knowledge Mgmt

Q: What is the purpose of Incident Management?

A: to make sure that normal service operation is restored quickly and business impact is minimized.

Q: What is the purpose of Request Fulfillment?

A: to manage the lifecycle of all service requests; to perform low risk, low cost changes.

Q: What is the purpose of Problem Management?

A: It helps proactively prevent incidents from happening; analyzes incident trends.

Q: Define a Problem

A: it’s the cause of one or more incidents

Q: Define Access Management

A: It helps protect the resources’ CIA triad; it’s the execution of policies from Information Security Mgmt.

Q: Define the purpose of Transition planning and Support

A: The purpose of Transition Planning and Support is:

– to plan the transition of any process
– to plan and coordinate the required resources, present and future
– uses project management approaches and standards such as PRINCE2 and PMP
– to ensure that the service transition is consistent with the requirements layed in Service Design
– to manage conflicting needs for resources
– to provide service transition policies and procedures

Q: What does Service Validation and Testing do?

A: validates a new or changing service

Q: Define Change Evaluation

A: It makes sure that risks are managed

Q: With which process does Change Evaluation work in conjuction?

A: Change Mgmt process.

Q: What is the purpose of Service Catalog Mgmt?

A: to ensure the availability of the catalog of services to those who are authorized to access them.

Q: What is the purpose of Capacity Mgmt?

A: to ensure that services have the capacity requirements to meet business needs.

Q: What is the purpose of Supplier Mgmt?

A: to obtain value for money from suppliers.

Q: True/false: Service Desk is not a function.

A: False. Service Desk is a function.

Q: What is the purpose of the Service Desk?

A: It is the point of contact between users and service provider

Q: True/false: Technical Mgmt is a function.

A: true.

Q: What is the main purpose of Technical Mgmt?

A: to provide technical skills.

Q: What is the purpose of Application Management?

A: to manage applications throughout their lifecycle.

Q: What are IT Operations Mgmt sub-functions?

A: IT Operation Control and Facilities Management.

Q: What is the purpose of the 7 keys of performance?

A: efficiency and cost effectiveness.

Q: true/false: CSI is a process

A: false.

Q: True/false: The Deming Cycle is a process

A: false.

Q: What is the purpose of Service Level Management?

A: The purpose of Service Level Management is:

– to negotiate achievable levels of service with customers and to ensure they are maintained at all stages of the Service Lifecycle,

– to control, measure and monitor the performance of services (through service reports) and define measurement metrics for that,
– to make sure the service provider can provide services at the agreed levels for the customer, in terms of utility and warranty.

Q: Which questions does Service Portfolio Management answer?

A: Service Portfolio Management answers the following questions:

– Why do customer buy this service?
– Why do customers buy this service from us?
– What are the pricing and chargeback models?
– How should service assets be allocated?

Q: What’s the measure metric for Business Relationship Mgmt?

A: customer satisfaction, his willingness to pay for the services, his potential to attract new customers.

Q: What’s the input of Service Design?

A: SLP.

Q: What’s the output of Service Design?

A: SDP.

Q: What are some of the components of SDP?

A: definition of processes that will be used in Service Transition.

Q: What is the purpose of Service Design?

A: The purpose of Service Design is:

– to design new or changing services that are cost effective, in compliance with the requirements dictated in the Service Level Package, and with the service strategies constraints
– to ensure these services integrate with the existing infrastructure, technology and other services.

Q: True/false: the design of the service will be almost complete of seen from the IT perspective

A: false. IT perspective is just a small portion of the design. A holistic approach is required when designing services.

Q: In which stages of the service lifecycle does Service Design intervene?    

A: in all processes of the lifecycle.

Q: What are the 5 aspects of Design?(aka what the IT provider can design)

A: Technology and Architecture, Service solution, Processes, Service Mgmt Information System and Tools, Measurements and Metrics.

Q: True/false: a SDP is produced for each IT service of the Service Design stage.

A: True.

Q: Acronym for SLM?

A: Service Level Mgmt

Q: What are the 4P’s of service design?

A: products, partners, people, processes.

Q: With which process does SLM work?

A: with Business Relationship Mgmt and change Mgmt.

Q: Define Service Level?

A: a measured achievement against Service Level Targets.

Q: Define SLA

A: an agreement between the IT provider and the customer. it defines: the IT service, its associated Service Level Targets and the responsibilities of both the IT provider and the customer.

Q: When a party violates the SLA, what should the other party do?

A: SLA is not intended as a way to hold the other party for ransom. It should be viewed as a goal to be achieved.

Q: Define OLA

A: Operational Level Agreement: an agreement between internal organizations of the same IT company.

Q: Define SLR

A: Service Level Requirement: customer requirements regarding an aspect of the IT service; based on business objectives; used to negotiate SLTs.

Q: What is the purpose of SLM?

A: to provide the agreed service levels between the IT provider and the customer, for all the IT services. It ensures the existence of professional and consistent methods to monitor the service level performance of IT services; to ensure that the underpinning contracts are consistent to business objectives

Q: Define SLM actions?

A: Define, Negotiate, Agree, Deploy, Monitor, Report, Review.

Q: What are the types of SLA?

A:

  • customer-SLA: SLA of IT services regarding a single customer,
  • service-SLA: SLA regarding a specific IT service, for all customers,
  • multi-level SLA: combines many levels of SLA such as a combination of “corporate-level SLA, service-level SLA, customer-level SLA”

Q: To which business role can the Service Level Manager be compared?

A: to the Account Manager.

Q: Business service vs Customer-facing service?

A:

  • Business service is a service that’s delivered to the business customer via business units (eg financial operation in a bank). It can sometimes be an almost-all-IT service;
  • the Customer-facing service is an IT service visible by the customer (eg receipt of account transactions through SMS). It contains live and pre-deployed services and its requirements are documented in the Service Catalog.

Q: Define Supporting Services

A: services that are not perceived by the business, but are needed by the provider to provide Customer-facing services. They include both live and pre-deployed services, and their relationship with the Customer-facing services are documented in the Service Catalog.

Q: Define Service Assets

A: Service Assets (aka Assets) are anything at the IT provider disposal that contribute to the service delivery.

Q: What are the three levels of planning and delivery?

A: Tactical, Strategic, Operational

Q: What does the Service Catalog contain?

A: live services and services ready to be deployed.

Q: What are the types of views of the Service Catalog?

A: two-view and three-view Service Catalogs:

  • the two-view Service Catalog lists business and technical services.
  • The three-view Service Catalog lists services per type of customer (eg wholesale services and retail services) in addition to the technical services.

Q: Role of the Service Catalog Manager?

A: Service Catalog Manager has:

  • to maintain the consistency of the Service Catalog;
  • to periodically review transitioning or live services

Q: Purpose of Service Catalog Mgmt?

A: to manage the Service Catalog and ensure consistency of services with business needs; to control and allow only authorized access to the Service Catalog.

Q: Define IT Availability Mgmt Information System

A: AMIS: a collection of tools, data and information gathered to ensure Availability Mgmt.

Q: What is the Availability plan?

A: It ensures current and future business availability needs for IT services in a cost-effective manner.

Q: Define Maintainability

A: the ability of a service or a CI to be restored to its working state. It’s measured with MTRS.

Q: Define Resiliency

A: the amount of time that passes before a service or a CI fails. It’s measured with MTBF or MTBSI.

Q: With which roles does the Availability Manager work?

A: Service Level Manager, IT Operations Manager, Technical Manager, Applications Manager.

Q: What are the characteristics of services in terms of Availability Mgmt?

A: fault tolerance and high availability.

Q: Define the Capacity plan

A: documents current and historic usage of IT service resources and studies future capacity needs of IT services in order to meet business needs.

Q: What are the 3 Sub-processes of Capacity Mgmt?

A: Business Capacity Mgmt, Component Capacity Mgmt, Service Capacity Mgmt.

Q: Define CMIS

A: Capacity Mgmt Information System: stores all data and information about IT service capacity, in addition to the Capacity Plan.

Q: How do we calculate the availability of a service?

A: availability= ((total_nbr_hours – nbr_hours_fail)/total_nbr_hours)*100.

Q: What are the steps to restore a failed service?

A: identify, diagnose, repair, recover, restore.

Q: What is the purpose of Information Security Mgmt?

A: to ensure CIA of services and resources at the agreed levels.

Q: Define ISMS

A: Information Security Mgmt System: set of procedures, tools and resources that ensure the mgmt of Information Security. It is not reduced to IT security only, but encompasses also paper, physical access, etc.

Q: What are the types of audits?

A: internal audits, external audits

Q: What are the five activity groups of the Security Mgmt framework?

A: Control, Plan, Implement, Evaluate, Maintain

Q: What do the underpinning security policies form?

A: the Information Security Policy.

Q: True/false: Information Security Policy must be communicated to everyone in the organization

A: true.

Q: What is the purpose of Supply Mgmt?

A: to manage the relationship between the IT provider and the suppliers through the underpinning contracts and to ensure they meet the agreed service level targets; negotiating, renewing and terminating contracts with partners, building a Supplier Contacts Database.

Q: With which process does the Supply Mgmt work?

A: with Service Level Mgmt.

Q: Define SCD

A: Supplier and Contract Database: set of data and information about the suppliers, their contracts and their performance.

Q: What are the activities of Supply Mgmt?

A: Supply policy, Evaluate new suppliers, Establish new supplier contracts, manage supplier contract and performance, renew or terminate supplier contract, categorize supplier and maintain SCD.

Q: Categories of suppliers?

A: commodity supplier, operational supplier, tactical supplier, strategic supplier.

Q: What’s the purpose of supplier categorization?

A: to distinguish the suppliers that have the highest impact and risk on the organization.

Q: IT Service Continuity plan

A: defines the trigger point of a Continuity procedure, the people involved, the communication required,…

Q: What is the purpose of BIA?

A: analyses the risk around VBFs and determines their continuity requirements in terms of RPO and RTO.

Q: Define RPO

A: Recovery Point Objective: The amount of data that will be lost after a disaster. It’s documented between the IT provider and the supplier.

Q: Define RTO

A: The amount of time needed to restore data after a disaster.

Q: Define DML

A: It is one or more locations that store software Configuration Items in their definitive state. These CI have been tested virus-free, stable and of high quality by check-in procedures. DML also contains licences and software documentation.

Q: true/false: in some cases, a source code can be stored in DML

A: true for source codes like PHP and Java (web banners, logos…) that are produced by the development team itself.

Q: true/false: DML items can be put stored in test environments

A: false. They must be isolated from all environments.

Q: How can CI in DML be used?

A: since they have been tested, they can be used in new releases.

Q: What are the types of Change?

A: standard, normal and emergency.

Q: true/false: it’s possible to leave change documentation after the change has been made

A: true for emergency changes.

Q: true/false: ECAB is an entity completely different from CAB

A: false; it’s attendees are part of CAB.

Q: Which element launches Change Mgmt process?

A: RFC

Q: What are the 7 R’s of change?

A: Raised, Responsible, Resource, Reason, Relationship, Risk, Return.

Q: How is the priority of a change is determined?

A: by estimating the associated urgency and impact.

Q: What is Standard Change?

A: it’s a pre-authorized Change such as schedule server maintenance, batch job…

Q: What is Normal change?

A: It is change that initiates an RFC which is submitted to CAB.

Q: What is Emergency change?

A: time-sensitive change that must be quickly implemented. Emergency changes have high business risk.

Q: Define CAB

A: a group of stakehomders that define high priority changes from given RFCs.

Q: true/false: Suppliers may in some cases assist to CAB meetings as stakeholders

A: true.

Q: (Change Mgmt) What is the purpose of the Review activity?

A: to reduce the number of Emergency changes.

Q: Define Change model

A: pre-defines the steps, workflow, procedures, management, escalation for a type of change.

Q: Define the Remediation plan

A: It is invoked when the change fails. It determines the necessary recovery resources and back-out plan.

Q: What should be done when the Remediation plan fails?

A: invoke the ITSC Mgmt process.

Q: How many Remediation plans should be created?

A: one for each Change Model.

Q: Which process uses CMS?

A: all IT service mgmt processes.

Q: What does CMS contain?

A: It controls, manages, stores, represents current and historical data about CIs and their relationships between them.

Q: What are the roles of SACM?

A: Configuration Analyst, CMS/Tools administrator, Assets Manager, Configuration Manager, Librairian.

Q: What does the Configuration model do?

A: It draws the services and the underlying components and relationships that build these services.

Q: true/false: a CI is anything that must provide a service

A: True.

Q: Give examples of CI

A: Problems, Changes, Networks, Applications, Infrastructure, and even people

Q: Define CMS

A: Configuration Mgmt System: a set of tools and information that collect store and present data about all CI of the IT infrastructure and their relationships. The CMS is very useful for Service Assets&Configuration Mgmt.

Q: True/false: CI are categorized in groups that have unique attributes

A: false. It’s CI that are characterized with attributes (name, version,..) and CI can be grouped.

Q: True/false: a CI has a lifecycle status

A: True: live, retired, ….

Q: Who’s in charge of the DML and DS?

A: the Librairian

Q: true/false: immediately after a package has been acquired, it’s implemented in production network

A: false. It’s planned and deployed on a test environment.

Q: What are the roles of Release and Deployment Mgmt?

A: Release and Packaging Mgr, Deployment Mgr,..

Q: What are the Release Options?

A: Big Bang, Phased, Push, Pull, Automated, Manual.

Q: Release Package vs Release Unit?

A: a Release Package contains one or more Release Units. A release unit is a set of software that is released together.

Q: What are the phases of Release and Deployment Mgmt?

A:

  • Release and Deployment Planning, 
  • Release build and test,
  • Deployment/Retirement,
  • Review and Close

Q: true/false: the KMS is updated at each activity of the Release and Deployment Mgmt process

A: false; only after the Review and Close activity; and it’s done by the Release and Deployment Mgr.

Q: Define Data, Information, Knowledge, Wisdom?

A:

  • data: figures, numbers, charts…it’s quantitative;
  • Information: the facts, what we understand from the data;
  • Knowledge: our analysis, our conclusion based on our experience;
  • Wisdom: our judgement

Q: true/false: The CMS is part of SKMS but the CMDB is not

A: false. Both are part of the SKMS.

Q: What are the Knowledge Mgmt activities?

A: Knowledge Mgmt Strategy, Knowledge Transfer, Building SKMS and Using it.

Q: Which challenges (or balance factors) does the Service Operation process face?

A: Internal vs external view, quality vs cost, responsiveness vs stability, reactiveness vs proactiveness.

Q: What are the possible responses to an event?

A: event logging, automatic response, human intervention, incident, problem, change, alert.

Q: Event vs Alert?

A: an event triggers an alert.

Q: Define Alert

A: information that a specific value has reached a threshold, or a state of a service or a CI has changed.

Q: Define Event Correlation

A: determining if many events are related to each other in some way.

Q: What is the purpose of Event Mgmt?

A: to take note of events, make sens of them and take appropriate action.

Q: Give some activities of Event Mgmt process?

A: Event Detection, Event filtering, Significance, Event correlation, Event review, Event close.

Q: true/false: an incident is categorized then logged

A: false. It’s logged, then categorized.

Q: What is the purpose of incident categorization?

A:

  • to distinguish incidents from service requests;
  • used for correct escalation;
  • used to match with similar incidents

Q: What are the sources of incidents?

A: web, mail, phone, event.

Q: Define Incident Mgmt

A: focuses on restoring the service to its normal state as soon as possible through solutions or workarounds; is responsible for reducing the time during which the service is disrupted; ensures that service disruption has little or no impact on business; may use KEDB.

Q: true/false: Incident Mgmt tries to understand why the incident happened

A: false. It only deals with solving the incident as quickly as possible.

Q: What is the Relationship between Incident Mgmt and SLA?

A: SLA defines timescales and response targets that should be respected by Incident Management.

Q: When is functional escalation recommended?

A: when the staff needs specialized knowledge.

Q: Why is hierarchic escalation recommended?

A: to inform the supervisor of the incident.

Q: When are both functional and hierarchic escalations needed?

A: when SLA-defined timescales are about to expire.

Q: What are the activities of Incident Mgmt?

A:

  • Incident Identification
  • Incident Logging
  • Incident Categorization
  • Incident Prioritization
  • Investigation and Diagnosis
  • Incident Escalation (if needed)
  • Incident Closure

Q: true/false: after solving an incident, the Service Desk must assign a “closure code” to it.

A: True.

Q: true/false: after solving an incident, a problem record is created and an optional user satisfaction survey may be launched.

A: false; the problem record is created only when needed. And the survey is required.

Q: Which entity is the first contact for Request Fulfillment?

A: Service Desk.

Q: Define Incident Model

A: the steps, tools, processes, resources, timescales, escalation procedures and resolutions that help solve an incident that has appeared and been solved before.

Q: Give an example when the Service Desk may need a non-IT team to fufill a request

A: when the user’s need involves acquiring a new priter, the Service Desk may communicate with the Procurement department.

Q: Define the Request Model

A: the tools, processes, resources and timescales required to fulfill a request that has appeared and been fulfilled before.

Q: true/false:Request Fulfillment can either be automatic or approval-based

A: True.

Q: Problem vs Known Error

A: a problem, once its root cause is determined, becomes a Known Error. The Known Error and its workaround (or permanent fix) is recorded in the KEDB.

Q: What is the purpose of Problem Mgmt?

A:

  • to minimize the impact of an incident that can not be prevented and to eliminate recurring incidents by identifying their root cause through a Root Cause Analysis,
  • to maintain the KEDB with Known Errors

Q: Define the Problem Model

A: the tools, processes, resources, activities, escalations and timescales required to recover a problem.

Q: What happens when the problem leads to a change in the environment?

A: Problem Mgmt process issues a RFC to Change Mgmt.

Q: true/false: only major problems are reviewed to study the success and failure points

A: True.

Q: Which other processes does Access Mgmt communicate with?

A: Information Security Mgmt,.

Q: Which fucntions does Access Mgmt communicate with?

A: Technical Mgmt, Applications Mgmt, IT Operations Mgmt, Service Desk.

Q: What are the structures of Service Desks?

A: central, local, virtual, follow-the-sun.

Q: Which Service Design process does the Service Desk communicate with?

A: Service Level Mgmt.

Q: When Service Desk staff are overwhelmed, what can the company do?

A: reinforce the Service Desk with Super Users.

Q: true/false: a user leaving Service Desk is worse than he leaving the company

A: false.

Q: Which balance should be maintained inside a Service Desk?

A: ability vs staffing level.

Q: In which stages does the Technical Mgmt function intervene?

A: Service Design, Service Transition, as well as other Service Operation processes.

Q: What are the components of Technical Mgmt function?

A: Server Mgmt, Database Mgmt, Network Mgmt, Mainframe Mgmt.

Q: What is the purpose of Technical Mgmt?

A:

  • provides technical resources to plan, implements and manages a highly resilient IT infrastructure.
  • to diagnose errors and to help prevent them from re-occuring

Q: true/false: since skilled staff are expensive, organization may go to contracting

A: True.

Q: What is the purpose of Application Mgmt?

A:

  • to plan, implement and maintain applications that respond to business needs;
  • to diagnose application errors and to help prevent them from re-occuring

Q: true/false: Application Mgmt is concerned with providing application codes

A: False.

Q: In which stages of the Service Lifecycle does the Application Mgmt process intervene?

A: in all stages.

Q: Define Operations Control

A: a sub-function of the IT Operations Mgmt function; set of individual short-term day-to-day activities like console monitoring, script verification, server patching,…

Q: Define Facilities Mgmt

A: a sub-function of the IT Operations Mgmt function; set of project-based activities responsible for monitoring the physical environment where IT infrastructure is located, such as cooling, air, power+ maintenance of recovery sites.

Q: How is the Operations Control sub-function also called?

A: NOC, or Operations bridge.

Q: Why do we measure in CSI?

A: to justify, to intervene, to direct, to validate.

Q: Deming Cycle components?

A:

  • Plan: plan what we’re going to do,
  • Do: do as planned,
  • Check: check if we got the desired outcome,
  • Act: improve (PDCA)

Q: What are the questions that are asked in the CSI approach?

A: What is our vision? Where are we? Where are we going to? How do we get there? Did we get there? How do we keep the momentum going?

Q: What is the acronym of VOI?

A: Value On Investment.

Q: VOI vs ROI

A: both VOI and ROI determine the estimated benefit from an investment. ROI is a calculated value of the monetary benefit after we substract the expenses, while VOI includes both tangible and intangible benefits.

Q: What are the CSI metric types?

A: Technology metrics: related to technology components; Service metrics: related to the overall performance of the service; Process metrics: related to the utilized processes.

Q: What is the purpose of CSI?

A: to continually measure IT service performance to make sure that they constantly meet business needs; to make sure Service portfolio is aligned with business needs.

Q: What is the purpose of Corporate Governance?

A: to provide fairness and transparency.

Q: What are the types of governance?

A: Corporate governance (Conformance) and Business governance (performance).

Q: What are the questions we must ask before doing CSI measurements?

A:

  • Why do we want to monitor and measure?
  • What are going to measure?
  • When should we stop?
  • Who will use the data?
  • Will we always need this?

Q: How does CSI establish baselines?

A: through assessments.

Q: What does the CSI Register contain?

A: structured database or document that records and manages improvement opportunities throughout their lifecycle.

Q: True/false: the 7step improvement process fits only with PDCA cycle

A: false. It fits with both Deming Cycle and DIKW cycle.

Q: List the 7-step improvement plan

A:

1. Define the strategy of improvement
2. Define What we will measure
3. gather the data: raw data, from different sources. No interpretations here
4. process the data:put the data into its context by taking CSF and KPI into consideration
5. Analyse data: to make conclusions based on experience
6. Present the information: present the information in a manner that can be understood by the stakeholders
7. Implement Improvement: apply the correction to processes and services, then restart the cycle again

Q: True/false: the implementation of the 7-step improvement Plan has no impact on already established and tested baseline

A: false. a new baseline is created.

Q: What’s the difference between the second step of the 7-step improvement Plan “what we will measure” and the measurement metrics defined in Service Strategy/Service Design?

A: the “what we will measure” answers the question “where we are now?” of the CSI approach.

Q: True/false: tools define processes.

A: false. Tools support processes, but do not define them. The processes must be designed before the toolsfalse. Tools support processes, but do not define them. The processes must be designed before the tools.

Q: What are the Service Strategy Simulation tools?

A:

  • queuing,
  • decision trees,
  • Analytical Models,
  • Workflow Models,
  • Forecasting tools.

Q: What are the Service Design tools?

A: Modeling, Prototyping.

Q: In which categories can Service Transition tools be put?

A: Entreprise tools, targeted transition tools.

Q: What are the Service Transition tools?

A: Knowledge Mgmt tools, CMS, workflow mgmt tools, collaboration tools.

Q: What are the Service Operation tools?

A: remote-access tools, discovery tools, reporting tools.

Q: Define “Business Case”

A: a document that presents the benefits, the options, the associated cost, the potential problems and the risks associated with a service. It justifies an item of expenditures.

Q: Which tool allows to track SLT achievement?

A: SLA Monitoring chart (SLAM).

Q: In the RACI model, how many people can be hold Accountable and Responsible for a task?

A: There can be many people hold Responsible, but only one is Accountable per task.

Q: Define “Incident”

A: an unexpected disruption of an IT service, or a degradation of the quality of a service.

Q: What’s the benefit of Service Automation for services?

A: improve utility and warranty.

Q: Which areas does Service Automation help in?

A:

  • Modeling and reporting
  • Pattern and trend analysis
  • Service catalog
  • Incident routing, requests
  • Service optimization…

Q: What is the purpose of Business Capacity Mgmt?

A: It is concerned with present and future business needs for capacity.

Q: true/false: all incidents must be logged

A: true; it’s done by the Service Desk.

Q: true/false: a user call to the Service Desk is a sign that there’s an incident.

A: false.

Q: Define “Underpinning Contract”

A: a agreement between the IT provider and a third party (e.g. IT vendor) that helps the provider to provide the service to its customer. It contains responsibilities of both parties and aims at achieving the SLTs of one or more SLAs.

Q: What’s the difference between Service Level Mgmt and Supplier Mgmt, in regards to Underpinning Contracts?

A: Supplier Mgmt is responsible for negotiating, estsablishing Underpinning Contracts while making sure that services meet business needs.

Q: What is the purpose of Service Level Mgmt?

A: checks if the Underpinning Contracts respond to the desired service levels.

Q: True/false: Supplier Mgmt is responsible for managing the risk associated with Underpinning Contracts.

A: false.

Q: Efficiency vs cost-effectiveness?

A: Efficiency is the measure of whether the right amount of resources are used for a process or a service. An efficient process is one that achieves the desired outcome with miminum resources.

Q: Define “Cost Effectiveness”

A: It is the measure of the cost incurred by a process or service to achieve its desired outcome. The lower the cost, the higher the cost-effectiveness.

Q: true/false: Service metrics measure the end-to-end performance of services.

A: true.

Q: Define “Change Proposal”

A: a document that gives a high level description of a new or changed IT service and its impact on business. the Change Proposal is usually presented with Implementation plans, Change schedules and Business Cases.

Q: Which entity creates Change Proposal?

A: the Change Proposal is created by the Service Portoflio Mgmt and is handed to Change Mgmt for authorization. Once authorized, the Service Porfolio Mgmt issues a service Charter.

Q: Management of the Underpinning Contracts is the responsibility of which process?

A: Supplier Mgmt.

Q: What is the output of Service Transition?

A: Service Transition Package STP.

Q: A process KPIs are also called…?

A: metrics.

Q: Change vs Change Proposal?

A: change is the act of adding or modifying a new or changing service. Change proposal is a document that details the change to be made.

Q: true/false: Design coordination coordinates activities for the overall Service Design lifecycle or for individual designs.

A: true.

Q: true/false: Change Review, which is part of the CAB agenda, includes reviewing both failed and successful changes.

A: false.

Q: true/false: emergency changes have their own change models.

A: true.

Q: true/false: Change Models contain complaints procedures.

A: false.

Q: True/false: a Process is triggered by an event.

A: true.

Q: true/false: a Process has functions that define the organization.

A: false. The process may have functions and associated roles and responsibilities, but it does not define the organization.

Q: What’s the relationship between Change Mgmt and SACM?

A: Change Mgmt updates the CMS items when the change is authorized.

Q: True/false: incidents are only those reported by phone to the Service Desk.

A: false. Any incident reported by any source (users, technicians, monitoring tools…) is an incident.

Q: True/false: Standard changes are performed by Service Desk

A: false.

Q: What’s the difference and similarity between Service Investments Analysis and Service Valuation?

A:

  • Both are activities of Financial Mgmt
  • Service Valuation: measurement of the total cost of providing an IT service to the business and measurement of the value to business, derived from this service.
  • Service Investment Analysis SIA: is the analysis of the cost of delivering the IT service.

Q: true/false: KEDB can be consulted by Incident Mgmt

A: True.

Q: What are the types of Service providers? (aka Business Models)

A:

  • Internal Service Provider
  • External Service Provider
  • Shared Service Provider

Q: What are the types of events in Service Operation book?

A: Information, Warning, Exception.

Q: From the perspective of Availability Mgmt, what are the levels of availability?

A:

  • service availability: concerned with the end-to-end availability of the service, and what the impact of a component failure has on its availability
  • component availability 

Q: true/false: proprietary knowledge is hard to adapt and reuse

A: True.

Q: What’s in a CAB agenda?

A:

  • RFC evaluation (normal changes) sorted by priority,
  • change schedules,
  • unauthorized changes
  • backed-out changes,
  • failed changes,
  • change reviews.

Categories: ITIL 2011 Foundation

Keyboard Banger

Keyboard Banger is a network engineer from Africa. He has been working in network support and administration since 2008. He started writing study notes about certification exams and technology topics a couple of years ago. When he's not writing articles, he can be found wandering on technical forums.

0 Comments

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *